Etimologjia e fjales.

[Zeus10]

Pershendetje!

Me pyti dikush se pse ne i thojm babes "babe" dhe jo "at" meqense ka nderlidhje me fjalen "atdhe".

A mund tregoj dikush me shume rreth fjales "at" dhe spjegimi?

Sipas te gjitha gjasave, prejardhja e saj eshte nga reduktimi i fjales onomatopeike ta-ta, qe ne natyre perfaqsohet nga belbezimi i femijes, njesoj si fjala ba-ba.

[Val9]

Pershendetje!

Me pyti dikush se pse ne i thojm babes "babe" dhe jo "at" meqense ka nderlidhje me fjalen "atdhe".

A mund tregoj dikush me shume rreth fjales "at" dhe spjegimi?

Sipas te gjitha gjasave, prejardhja e saj eshte nga reduktimi i fjales onomatopeike ta-ta, qe ne natyre perfaqsohet nga belbezimi i femijes, njesoj si fjala ba-ba.

Falemindert per spjegim, kam edhe nje pytje, cili eshte argumenti ma i fort qe duhet te perdoret kunder atyre qe thojn automatikisht qe shqipja ka huazime nga latinishtja.

[Zeus10]

Pershendetje!

Me pyti dikush se pse ne i thojm babes "babe" dhe jo "at" meqense ka nderlidhje me fjalen "atdhe".

A mund tregoj dikush me shume rreth fjales "at" dhe spjegimi?

Sipas te gjitha gjasave, prejardhja e saj eshte nga reduktimi i fjales onomatopeike ta-ta, qe ne natyre perfaqsohet nga belbezimi i femijes, njesoj si fjala ba-ba.

Falemindert per spjegim, kam edhe nje pytje, cili eshte argumenti ma i fort qe duhet te perdoret kunder atyre qe thojn automatikisht qe shqipja ka huazime nga latinishtja.

Qe dhe nese shqipja ka huazuar nga latinishtja, kjo ka ndodhur sepse latinishtja eshte nje gjuhe kulture, prandaj dhe leksiku i mundshem i huazuar eshte nga stoku i termave te zhvillimit. Nga ana tjeter, latinishtja duke qene nje gjuhe kulture, shfaqet ne formen qe ka sot me nje leksik te pasur, jo si zhvillim spontan vernakular, POR E KRIJUAR NE KRYE TE HERES PER QELLIME LITURGJIE dhe me vone e pasuruar, ashtu sic rriten gjuhet e kultures. Sigurisht, qe ajo nuk i krijua nga hici, por nga nje gjuhe e folur, qe une mendoj qe ka qene nje dialekt i shqipes se vjeter, apo nje idiome e ngjashme me te. Ne kete pikepamje, eshte shqipja ajo qe i ka huajtuar latinishtes termat baze, per ti marre ato shpeshhere mbrapsh, me trajta latine te perpunuara, duke krijuar nje imazh te rreme, si huazime te mirrefillta.

[Orakulli]

Zeus, ke mundesi ta kthesh kete faqe te kodit Beratit me alfabetin a albaneve.

[Mallakastrioti]

Pershendetje Orakulli. Po marr disi pjese edhe une ne kete shkrim te Kodit te Beratit (sigurisht me njohurite qe kam dhe aspak per ti dale perpara Zeus10 qe ka me teper zotesi se mua ne kete aspekt)...por po mundohem:

"OSOITOSAMF
ENNIS.NOIPOL
LOMALLONUMAE (?)*
OLIGOPISTOI
OINMERIM I
SITELEGONTES
TIFAGOMENITI
PEIOMENITI(?)*
RIVALOMETHLPA (?)*
TAGARTAUITATAE
THNIEPIZITE
OILENGAROPIR
UMONOOIRANI
OSOTIKRIZETE
TOITONAPAN
ZITITED(H)EPRO

...

TOI THI KAI
KAIOSININA
KAITAITAPAN
PROSTETHISET
UMIN MIOINM
RIMNICIT-TH(?)*EIS
TINAIRION IGA
AVRIONMERIMN
CEITAEAITISA
KENTONTIIME
I KAKILLITIS
MIKRINETEINA
KRITHITE ENO
KRIMATIKRINE
KRITHISESTHEK
E NOM ETRO"

---
(?)* Disi te padallueshme per leximin tim

[Val9]

Pershendetje!

Me pyti dikush se pse ne i thojm babes "babe" dhe jo "at" meqense ka nderlidhje me fjalen "atdhe".

A mund tregoj dikush me shume rreth fjales "at" dhe spjegimi?

Sipas te gjitha gjasave, prejardhja e saj eshte nga reduktimi i fjales onomatopeike ta-ta, qe ne natyre perfaqsohet nga belbezimi i femijes, njesoj si fjala ba-ba.

Falemindert per spjegim, kam edhe nje pytje, cili eshte argumenti ma i fort qe duhet te perdoret kunder atyre qe thojn automatikisht qe shqipja ka huazime nga latinishtja.

Qe dhe nese shqipja ka huazuar nga latinishtja, kjo ka ndodhur sepse latinishtja eshte nje gjuhe kulture, prandaj dhe leksiku i mundshem i huazuar eshte nga stoku i termave te zhvillimit. Nga ana tjeter, latinishtja duke qene nje gjuhe kulture, shfaqet ne formen qe ka sot me nje leksik te pasur, jo si zhvillim spontan vernakular, POR E KRIJUAR NE KRYE TE HERES PER QELLIME LITURGJIE dhe me vone e pasuruar, ashtu sic rriten gjuhet e kultures. Sigurisht, qe ajo nuk i krijua nga hici, por nga nje gjuhe e folur, qe une mendoj qe ka qene nje dialekt i shqipes se vjeter, apo nje idiome e ngjashme me te. Ne kete pikepamje, eshte shqipja ajo qe i ka huajtuar latinishtes termat baze, per ti marre ato shpeshhere mbrapsh, me trajta latine te perpunuara, duke krijuar nje imazh te rreme, si huazime te mirrefillta.

Faleminderit! E sa per teorin qe shqipja eshte gjuhe "satem", kurse Latinishtja eshte gjuhe "centum".

Q'mund te thuhet ketu? Kam ndegju qe kjo "teori" ka "ra" moti.

[Zeus10]

Pershendetje Orakulli. Po marr disi pjese edhe une ne kete shkrim te Kodit te Beratit (sigurisht me njohurite qe kam dhe aspak per ti dale perpara Zeus10 qe ka me teper zotesi se mua ne kete aspekt)...por po mundohem:

[col]"OSOITOSAMF
ENNIS.NOIPOL
LOMALLONUMAE (?)*
OLIGOPISTOI
OINMERIM I
SITELEGONTES
TIFAGOMENITI
PEIOMENITI(?)*
RIVALOMETHLPA (?)*
TAGARTAUITATAE
THNIEPIZITE
OILENGAROPIR
UMONOOIRANI
OSOTIKRIZETE
TOITONAPAN
ZITITED(H)EPRO|TOI THI KAI
KAIOSININA
KAITAITAPAN
PROSTETHISET
UMIN MIOINM
RIMNICIT-TH(?)*EIS
TINAIRION IGA
AVRIONMERIMN
CEITAEAITISA
KENTONTIIME
I KAKILLITIS
MIKRINETEINA
KRITHITE ENO
KRIMATIKRINE
KRITHISESTHEK
E NOM ETRO"[/col]
---
(?)* Disi te padallueshme per leximin tim

Nuk kam cfare ti shtoj transkiptimit tend Mallakastrioti. Ne te njejten kohe dua te them, qe teksti eshte shkruar ne nje Greqishte Kishtare, qe nga te gjithe format e greqishtes eshte ajo qe njoh me pak. Kolona e pare me te dyten lidhen me fjalen PROTOY( i/e pari). Megjithate dalloj shume fjale te njejta me te sotmen, me ca prapashtesa te cuditshme.Ne te njejten kohe nuk duhet te harrojme, qe para se kjo gjuhe te fillonte te shkruhej me germa te vogla, eshte shkruajtur me germa kapitale. Keshtu nje fjale qe sot shkruhet keshtu:

οὗτος
ne tekst eshte
OYTOC

Alfabeti eshte ai qe rendom perdorej ne ate qe e quajme "Greqishte e Vjeter".

[Zeus10]

Pershendetje!

Me pyti dikush se pse ne i thojm babes "babe" dhe jo "at" meqense ka nderlidhje me fjalen "atdhe".

A mund tregoj dikush me shume rreth fjales "at" dhe spjegimi?

Sipas te gjitha gjasave, prejardhja e saj eshte nga reduktimi i fjales onomatopeike ta-ta, qe ne natyre perfaqsohet nga belbezimi i femijes, njesoj si fjala ba-ba.

Falemindert per spjegim, kam edhe nje pytje, cili eshte argumenti ma i fort qe duhet te perdoret kunder atyre qe thojn automatikisht qe shqipja ka huazime nga latinishtja.

Qe dhe nese shqipja ka huazuar nga latinishtja, kjo ka ndodhur sepse latinishtja eshte nje gjuhe kulture, prandaj dhe leksiku i mundshem i huazuar eshte nga stoku i termave te zhvillimit. Nga ana tjeter, latinishtja duke qene nje gjuhe kulture, shfaqet ne formen qe ka sot me nje leksik te pasur, jo si zhvillim spontan vernakular, POR E KRIJUAR NE KRYE TE HERES PER QELLIME LITURGJIE dhe me vone e pasuruar, ashtu sic rriten gjuhet e kultures. Sigurisht, qe ajo nuk i krijua nga hici, por nga nje gjuhe e folur, qe une mendoj qe ka qene nje dialekt i shqipes se vjeter, apo nje idiome e ngjashme me te. Ne kete pikepamje, eshte shqipja ajo qe i ka huajtuar latinishtes termat baze, per ti marre ato shpeshhere mbrapsh, me trajta latine te perpunuara, duke krijuar nje imazh te rreme, si huazime te mirrefillta.

Faleminderit! E sa per teorin qe shqipja eshte gjuhe "satem", kurse Latinishtja eshte gjuhe "centum".

Q'mund te thuhet ketu? Kam ndegju qe kjo "teori" ka "ra" moti.

Eshte teoria me raciste, qe Bota e Krishtere Perendimore ka krijuar. Praktikisht, i ndan evropianet ne lindore dhe perendimore duke qene premise per ndarjen e mevonshme politike qe ndodhi ne Europe. Eshte praktikisht, nje teori qe nuk ka bazament shkencor fare, qendron ne ajer dhe praktikisht eshte krijuar per te shprehur ndjenjen e superioritetit perendimor dhe ne gjuhe. Spekulon shume me terminologjine pseudoshkencore, duke e detyruar njeriun e thjeshte te mos ta kundershtoje, sepse mund ta lincojne "shkencetaret". Teoria u krijua nga "raca superiore" gjermane, qe mund te them qe jane aq idiote ne shkencat shoqerore, sac jane te mire ne shkencat teknike. Studjuesit e sotem, me gjysem zeri thone:

.....is said by some to be outdated because of being based on just one phonological feature

.

Une do thosha, jo vetem nje por njekohosisht dhe hipotetike, sepse pretendohet qe eshte zhdukur me kohe.

[Arban Blandi]

[col][quote2="Një përgjigjje nga një hollandez.."]Of course there is a gigantic 2500 years-gap between ancient Hellas and modern Greece. We cannot expect to observe a continuous switchover from the past to modern society.

The old Hellenic culture may have been represented by a very small area near the Greek and Turkish coastlines, where Hellenic culture developed. The traders probably adapted their language to fit to the customers and may be compared to the simple English we observe in remote countries, where the dictionary for simple communication is to be reduced to an absolute minimum. As an example I suggest to compare Koine to Globish is a simplified and optimized English using a set of approximately 1500 keywords, "Biblical Koine" may be more complicated and refers to the varieties of Koine Greek used in the Christian Bible and related texts.

At some distance from the coastline the farmers probably used dialects, which may have developed from the original, local PIE-languages, to be enriched in the course of time by external influences, such as wars and religious waves.

My main interest in etymology are the personal pronouns, whose archaic structures may have been preserved in mountainous areas. The most impressive personal pronouns have been found in the neighborhood of the Alps. I also tried to identify the structure for the Albanian personal pronouns, which are quite different from neighboring countries. The personal pronoun for the first person is: unë - According to some researchers, from Old Albanian U "I" followed from the particle -në; compare ti and (dialectal) tinë. The Old Albanian word U "I" seems to be based on a simple vowel U, representing the personal pronoun Ego (in English “I”).. This would be an interesting topic for further study. Normally the ego-pronouns have been derived from.. vocal roots. Unfortunately very little has been published in the field of Old Albanian language.[/quote2]|[/col]

[AnastasiaGR]

Not all Albanians would be aware whate ego-pronouns means, right?

[Arban Blandi]

Not all Albanians would be aware whate ἐγώ-pronouns means, right?

Ὀ τὶ νᾶ μάῤῥσσ τἐ λὶγατἐ..

Thereafter, make us aware, without childish replies.

[Orakulli]

Calling a language a “Greek” language does not mean it is a really Greek language. I grant you that there may have occasionally been cases of a language having as name the Albanian one to themselves and Scottish to other people, but that language is not an Albanian language. The point is that a language does not need to have a Greek name to be the ancient Greek language.
What mostly of people do not know today is that that language use today only the phoenician alphabet, although so called unfairly "Greek alphabet", which is the only point that tights the modern "Greek" with the ancient Greek language. The truth is that the modern "Greek" is an artificial language and very new one. It is the church's language; very artificial one, which was being made and taught by some priests of the dark age , in times when the human rights did not even exist. The people were forced to learn that language because of the big question "to be, or not to be".
But, what the mixed people of the new artificial state of "Greeks" do not know today, it is what that language contains inside: slave brains.
A language can distort reality. It happens to linguists, people.
The standard of modern "Greek" is based on a Church tradition stemming from 14th century.
For some reason, since the 17th century the “ancient Greek culture” got more and more prestigious. What is funny is that instead of just claiming "The church language has changed the vernacular language, and people on the one hand became oblivious of the dramatic differences of their vernacular languages from the modern “Greek” just from the beginning of this process; read books of the new "Greek" state, and on the other hand later on they became overly sensitive to the big differences of the modern “Greek” from the ancient Greek," some people-linguists still are writing that "the fact that modern Greeks can still wholly or partly understand texts ...". It is a big lie.
People and linguists fall victim of prejudices. Maybe it is just human. What is worst is that the claim is factually and demonstrably wrong. This is dramatically evident if one looks lexis and syntax of two languages. Modern “Greek’ shares with the ancient Greek only 150 words that were put in it from a Greek-Switzerland nationalist. Modern “Greek” is well known to lack all of ancient Greek features. As for grammar proper, nothing special could be said that makes modern “Greek” appears to be closer to the ancient Greek more than Albanian.

[Zeus10]

Not all Albanians would be aware whate ego-pronouns means, right?

I think you need te exercise your knowledge outside of Greek World scholasticism. In fact, it’s you, that need to learn much more about the origin of your language lexicon. The word ego(εγο) in the “Greek” language is a derivat of the word Έχω which means: (I) have. The consonants γ-χ-κ are basicly the same ones, which differ from each other only from voice height, and very often switch to each other giving out words with the same structure and relative semantics, like εγο-εχω . The verb Έχω is the verb of the possession, which is used only when you possess(Κατέχω) something, this is the ego-verb. The verb Έχω sounds in English echo, while in Albanian eko(εκο). It’s excactly Albanian language, the origin of the word Έχω. The real verb is ka(ko in dialect) while the ε in the front of the verb is actually short form of the personal pronouns in accussative third singular, which is attached to the main verb ko structure, and its main function is to reinforce the idea of the verb, in our case possession, for example:

Ai e ka fuqine per te qene udheheqes/ he already has the power to be a leader

In Albanian language KO(ka) is a primitive word of the possession, where the main function is played from the consonant k, while the fluid vowel completes the structure c-v of the primitive word.
The ego-pronoun εγο is the pronoun of the possesion(power), and like I explained above is the empiric usual Greek transformation, of the fusion of the Albanian words e+ko. The actual ‘bone’ of the word is the consonant k, which is an ideophone and alone represents being and possession. That is why in Albanian almost every part of the body words starts with this sound:

Kërmë/a-----corpse
Këmbë/a-----leg
Kërci-----shin
Kokë/a----head
Kraharor—chest
Kurriz------back
Krah-----arm
Kërthize---- bellybutton
Kockë—bone
kofshë----thigh
këllqe----hip

and many other minor elements in human being.

[Val9]

A ka fjala sllave "kraj, krajina, krahina" lidhje dhe prejardhjen nga fjala "kyre" ose "krah" (ne kuptimin krahu i fort i cili eshte krahina).

[Mallakastrioti]

Nje shpjegim interesant dhe shkencor do te thoja i fjales "MAL" si dhe lashtesia e saj- Autor ,Pietro Matranga